I see a lot of mistakes and a lot of misinformed people in this thread.
First, do ya'll understand the concept of the Name Nrand of a drug VS the Generic of a drug?? I mean this is basic Pharmacology 101, I am surprised they didn't teach you this when when you took Pharmacology in undergraduate or Grad school.
The name brand of a drug is licensed solely to the inventor of that particular drug. For example, Roche invented Valium, the name brand, and as such, for the first 7 years of its existence, Roche was granted sole autonomy to manufacture Valium. There legally could be no manufacture of a generic for the first 7 years. With this patent, it was illegal for any manufacturer to make a generic for valium for these first 7 years, because the patent lasts for 7 years. After this 7 year patent expires, then the original manufacturer (Roche) no longer has sole autonomy to produce this drug, and any number of manufacturers (usually several different manufacturers) may produce a near-identical Generic form.
For this particular drug, the Name Brand is Valium, and the only manufacturer licensed to make it is Roche. There are a number of different manufacturers of Diazepam, the Generic form of Valium. Valium and Diazepam are identical with the sole exception of 1 or 2 different molecules in the molecular structure/formula. If you looked at the chemical architecture of Valium and Diazepam, you'd find the 2 molecules are 99% identical, there is only a very minute difference in the two.
So, again, Diazepam (The Generic) and Valium (the name brand made by Roche) are essentially one and the same. Cliically, you will not find a difference in the efficacy of the Generic vs the name brand.
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I 'll be able to support my future family quite well. Buy my (future) wife a nice car and a nice home, live in a safe neighborhood, put my kids through 4 years at Texas A&M
. I cannot wait.